Section 1: Information Technology Act, 2000
1. In which year was the Information Technology Act enacted in India?
A. 1998 B. 2000 C. 2005 D. 2008
Answer: B. 2000
2. What is the primary objective of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
A. To regulate land ownership B. To recognize electronic records and electronic transactions and address specified cyber offences C. To regulate family disputes D. To govern parliamentary elections
Answer: B. To recognize electronic records and electronic transactions and address specified cyber offences.
3. Which section deals with penalties and compensation for certain unauthorized acts involving computer resources?
A. Section 43 B. Section 66C C. Section 67 D. Section 72
Answer: A. Section 43
4. Which section addresses computer-related offences committed dishonestly or fraudulently under the Act?
A. Section 43A B. Section 66 C. Section 69A D. Section 79
Answer: B. Section 66
5. Which section of the IT Act deals with identity theft?
A. Section 66B B. Section 66C C. Section 66D D. Section 66F
Answer: B. Section 66C
6. Which section addresses cheating by personation using a computer resource?
A. Section 65 B. Section 66C C. Section 66D D. Section 67A
Answer: C. Section 66D
7. Which section addresses cyberterrorism under the IT Act?
A. Section 66E B. Section 66F C. Section 67B D. Section 70B
Answer: B. Section 66F
8. Which section deals with violation of privacy involving images of private areas in specified circumstances?
A. Section 66E B. Section 66C C. Section 67C D. Section 69
Answer: A. Section 66E
9. Which section addresses publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form?
A. Section 65 B. Section 66 C. Section 67 D. Section 70
Answer: C. Section 67
10. Which section addresses the publication or transmission of sexually explicit material in electronic form?
A. Section 66D B. Section 67A C. Section 69B D. Section 72A
Answer: B. Section 67A
Section 2: Cybercrime and online fraud
11. What is phishing?
A. Compressing a computer file B. Fraudulently attempting to obtain sensitive information through deceptive communications or websites C. Updating computer software D. Encrypting a personal backup
Answer: B. Fraudulently attempting to obtain sensitive information through deceptive communications or websites.
12. What is ransomware?
A. Software that improves internet speed B. Malicious software that locks or encrypts data and demands payment C. A legal electronic signature D. A data backup application
Answer: B. Malicious software that locks or encrypts data and demands payment.
13. What is identity theft in the context of cybercrime?
A. Changing your profile photograph B. Fraudulently using another person's identifying information or credentials C. Creating a new email account D. Deleting an unused application
Answer: B. Fraudulently using another person's identifying information or credentials.
14. What is a Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack?
A. An attack that overwhelms a service with traffic from multiple sources B. A password recovery procedure C. A secure data transfer method D. A legal audit of computer systems
Answer: A. An attack that overwhelms a service with traffic from multiple sources.
15. What is cyberstalking?
A. Lawful online research B. Repeated unwanted online conduct that may amount to stalking or another offence, depending on the facts and applicable law C. Installing a security update D. Registering a domain name
Answer: B. Repeated unwanted online conduct that may amount to stalking or another offence, depending on the facts and applicable law.
16. What is a brute-force password attack?
A. Guessing many possible passwords until one works B. Encrypting a hard drive for backup C. Installing a firewall D. Signing a digital document
Answer: A. Guessing many possible passwords until one works.
17. What is social engineering in cybersecurity?
A. Designing social media posts B. Manipulating people into revealing information or performing unsafe actions C. Developing a government website D. Creating an electronic court record
Answer: B. Manipulating people into revealing information or performing unsafe actions.
18. Which of the following is an example of financial cyber fraud?
A. Receiving a legitimate bank statement B. Being tricked into authorizing a fraudulent online transfer C. Updating a banking application D. Downloading an official account statement
Answer: B. Being tricked into authorizing a fraudulent online transfer.
19. What is malware?
A. Software designed to perform malicious or unauthorized activities B. A legal notice C. A government certificate D. An ordinary spreadsheet
Answer: A. Software designed to perform malicious or unauthorized activities.
20. What is a botnet?
A. A collection of interconnected printers B. A network of compromised devices controlled to perform coordinated activities C. A secure online payment gateway D. A digital signature certificate
Answer: B. A network of compromised devices controlled to perform coordinated activities.
Section 3: Electronic records and digital evidence
21. Which Indian law currently governs the admissibility of electronic records in evidence under its relevant provisions?
A. Indian Contract Act, 1872 B. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 C. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 D. Companies Act, 2013
Answer: B. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
22. Which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 deals with the admissibility of electronic records?
A. Section 21 B. Section 45 C. Section 63 D. Section 100
Answer: C. Section 63
23. Which of the following may constitute digital evidence?
A. Emails B. CCTV recordings C. Electronic messages and computer files D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
24. What is a digital forensic investigation?
A. A process for examining digital devices and data to identify and preserve relevant evidence B. A method of designing websites C. A process for registering trademarks D. A method of encrypting every public document
Answer: A. A process for examining digital devices and data to identify and preserve relevant evidence.
25. What does “chain of custody” mean in digital forensics?
A. The history of a website's domain name B. A documented record of the collection, handling, transfer and storage of evidence C. The list of passwords used by an employee D. A computer network configuration
Answer: B. A documented record of the collection, handling, transfer and storage of evidence.
26. What is the purpose of hashing a digital evidence file?
A. To change its contents B. To generate a value that can help verify whether its contents have changed C. To publish it online D. To remove its metadata
Answer: B. To generate a value that can help verify whether its contents have changed.
27. Which of the following is an example of metadata?
A. A file's creation date or author information B. The colour of a computer desk C. A printed court building photograph D. A keyboard's physical dimensions
Answer: A. A file's creation date or author information.
28. What is the principal purpose of preserving a forensic copy of digital evidence?
A. To make the evidence publicly available B. To permit examination while protecting the original evidence from unnecessary alteration C. To delete the original evidence immediately D. To remove all records of access
Answer: B. To permit examination while protecting the original evidence from unnecessary alteration.
29. Does the fact that a screenshot exists automatically prove that its contents are authentic?
A. Yes, in every case B. No; authenticity, integrity, relevance and applicable admissibility requirements must be considered C. Yes, if it is in colour D. Yes, if it is shared by email
Answer: B. No; authenticity, integrity, relevance and applicable admissibility requirements must be considered.
30. What is the purpose of an electronic-record certificate where required under Section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?
A. To establish a company's ownership of all data B. To provide prescribed information about the electronic record, its production and relevant conditions C. To replace every witness in a trial D. To certify that a website is popular
Answer: B. To provide prescribed information about the electronic record, its production and relevant conditions.
Section 4: Electronic signatures, privacy and data protection
31. Which section of the IT Act deals with legal recognition of electronic signatures?
A. Section 3A B. Section 43 C. Section 66F D. Section 79
Answer: A. Section 3A
32. Which section of the IT Act addresses legal recognition of electronic records?
A. Section 4 B. Section 14 C. Section 66C D. Section 72
Answer: A. Section 4
33. Which legislation specifically addresses the processing of digital personal data in India?
A. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 B. Indian Easements Act, 1882 C. Registration Act, 1908 D. Sale of Goods Act, 1930
Answer: A. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
34. Under the DPDP Act, what does “personal data” generally mean?
A. Any data about an identifiable individual B. Only a company's annual turnover C. Only publicly available weather data D. Only data about computer hardware
Answer: A. Any data about an identifiable individual.
35. Under the DPDP Act, what is a “Data Principal”?
A. The individual to whom the personal data relates B. The owner of every internet service provider C. The administrator of a court building D. The manufacturer of a computer
Answer: A. The individual to whom the personal data relates.
36. Under the DPDP Act, a “Data Fiduciary” is generally the entity that:
A. Determines the purpose and means of processing personal data B. Only repairs computers C. Issues all court judgments D. Registers every website domain
Answer: A. Determines the purpose and means of processing personal data.
37. What is a personal data breach?
A. An authorized software update B. Unauthorized or accidental handling, disclosure, alteration, destruction or loss of access to personal data that compromises its confidentiality, integrity or availability C. A normal website redesign D. A scheduled computer shutdown
Answer: B. Unauthorized or accidental handling, disclosure, alteration, destruction or loss of access to personal data that compromises its confidentiality, integrity or availability.
38. Which of the following is a good data-protection practice?
A. Collecting all possible personal information without a purpose B. Sharing passwords publicly C. Limiting data collection and access to what is appropriate for legitimate purposes D. Keeping all personal data indefinitely without review
Answer: C. Limiting data collection and access to what is appropriate for legitimate purposes.
39. What is two-factor authentication (2FA)?
A. Using two different accounts for the same email B. Using two authentication factors to verify a user's identity C. Changing a password twice a year D. Creating two copies of a document
Answer: B. Using two authentication factors to verify a user's identity.
40. What is encryption?
A. Converting information into a form that is protected from unauthorized reading without the appropriate key or method B. Printing data on paper C. Deleting a website D. Publishing passwords online
Answer: A. Converting information into a form that is protected from unauthorized reading without the appropriate key or method.
Section 5: Cybersecurity compliance and emerging technology law
41. Which Indian organization is the national agency for responding to specified cybersecurity incidents under Section 70B of the IT Act?
A. CERT-In B. Election Commission of India C. University Grants Commission D. National Human Rights Commission
Answer: A. CERT-In
42. What does CERT-In stand for?
A. Computer Emergency Response Team–India B. Central Electronic Records Investigation Network C. Cyber Evidence Regulation Institute D. Computer Examination and Registration Tribunal
Answer: A. Computer Emergency Response Team–India.
43. Which section of the IT Act deals with the Controller's power to give directions?
A. Section 43 B. Section 68 C. Section 66E D. Section 67A
Answer: B. Section 68
44. Which section of the IT Act addresses the power to issue directions for blocking public access to information through a computer resource?
A. Section 66C B. Section 69A C. Section 70B D. Section 79A
Answer: B. Section 69A
45. What is the primary purpose of a firewall?
A. To filter or control network traffic according to security rules B. To create electronic signatures C. To issue digital certificates D. To determine legal ownership of data
Answer: A. To filter or control network traffic according to security rules.
46. What is vulnerability disclosure in cybersecurity?
A. Publishing users' passwords B. Reporting a security weakness to the responsible party so it can be assessed and addressed C. Deleting all security logs D. Sharing confidential information without authorization
Answer: B. Reporting a security weakness to the responsible party so it can be assessed and addressed.
47. What is an AI-generated deepfake?
A. A traditional handwritten legal notice B. Synthetic or manipulated audio, video or imagery generated or altered using AI to imitate people or events C. An ordinary computer backup D. A type of electronic signature certificate
Answer: B. Synthetic or manipulated audio, video or imagery generated or altered using AI to imitate people or events.
48. Is every AI-generated deepfake automatically a criminal offence in India?
A. Yes, without exception B. No; legal consequences depend on the content, conduct, intent, applicable law and circumstances C. Yes, if it is shared privately D. No deepfake can ever violate the law
Answer: B. No; legal consequences depend on the content, conduct, intent, applicable law and circumstances.
49. What should an organization generally do after discovering a serious cybersecurity incident?
A. Delete all logs immediately B. Ignore the incident if services resume C. Contain the incident, preserve relevant evidence, investigate, and meet applicable reporting obligations D. Publish confidential customer information
Answer: C. Contain the incident, preserve relevant evidence, investigate, and meet applicable reporting obligations.
50. Which of the following best describes the relationship between AI law and cyber law?
A. They are completely unrelated B. AI law can overlap with cyber law on issues such as privacy, cybersecurity, identity fraud, and digital evidence C. Cyber law applies only to printed documents D. AI systems are exempt from all existing laws
Answer: B. AI law can overlap with cyber law on issues such as privacy, cybersecurity, identity fraud, and digital evidence.
Official legal references
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